Moreno Best
02/10/2024 · Junior High School
2. If \( f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{ll}x^{3} \cos \frac{1}{x}, & \text { if } x \neq 0 \\ 0, & \text { if } x=0\end{array}\right. \), then (a) \( f^{\prime}(0)=-1 \) (b) \( f(x) \) is not differentiable at \( x=0 \) (c) \( f^{\prime}(0)=\frac{1}{2} x \) (d) \( f^{\prime}(0)=0 \) (e) \( f^{\prime}(0)=1 \)
UpStudy ThothAI Solution
Tutor-Verified Answer
Step-by-step Solution
To determine the derivative of the function \( f(x) \) at \( x = 0 \), we need to compute the limit that defines the derivative:
\[
f'(0) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(h) - f(0)}{h}
\]
Given that \( f(0) = 0 \), we can simplify this to:
\[
f'(0) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(h)}{h}
\]
For \( h \neq 0 \), we have:
\[
f(h) = h^3 \cos \frac{1}{h}
\]
Thus, we can write:
\[
f'(0) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{h^3 \cos \frac{1}{h}}{h} = \lim_{h \to 0} h^2 \cos \frac{1}{h}
\]
Now, we analyze the limit:
1. The term \( h^2 \) approaches \( 0 \) as \( h \to 0 \).
2. The term \( \cos \frac{1}{h} \) oscillates between \(-1\) and \(1\) as \( h \) approaches \( 0\).
Since \( h^2 \) approaches \( 0 \) and \( \cos \frac{1}{h} \) is bounded, we can conclude that:
\[
\lim_{h \to 0} h^2 \cos \frac{1}{h} = 0
\]
Therefore, we find that:
\[
f'(0) = 0
\]
Now, we can evaluate the options given:
(a) \( f^{\prime}(0)=-1 \) - Incorrect
(b) \( f(x) \) is not differentiable at \( x=0 \) - Incorrect
(c) \( f^{\prime}(0)=\frac{1}{2} x \) - Incorrect
(d) \( f^{\prime}(0)=0 \) - Correct
(e) \( f^{\prime}(0)=1 \) - Incorrect
Thus, the correct answer is:
\[
\boxed{d}
\]
Quick Answer
The correct answer is d. \( f^{\prime}(0)=0 \).
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