Cross Logan
10/01/2023 · Primary School
For any two sets \( A \& B \), can wegeneralize \( A \triangle B=B \triangle A \) Justify your answer
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The symmetric difference of two sets \( A \) and \( B \), denoted by \( A \triangle B \), is commutative, meaning \( A \triangle B = B \triangle A \). This is because the union and intersection operations, which are used to define the symmetric difference, are commutative.
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